annathepiper: (Default)
[personal profile] annathepiper
This point just got raised to me by [livejournal.com profile] gerimaple, proofing Chapter 18 of Faerie Blood for me. Consider the following sentence:

Our initial nervous winces at mistakes turned into snickers, which in turn became challenges to see who could throw who off beat by making outrageous faces at flubbed notes.

Is that grammatically correct? Or should it in fact be:

Our initial nervous winces at mistakes turned into snickers, which in turn became challenges to see who could throw whom off beat by making outrageous faces at flubbed notes.

Word's grammar checker thinks it should be option 1 (please, hold your snarky commentary about Word's grammar checker; yeah yeah yeah, I know, it's not perfect, but hey, it's the tool I've got); Geri thinks option 2. Me, I'm not sure. Anybody up for explaining to me which version is grammatically correct and why? Thanks in advance!
(deleted comment)

Date: 2005-05-08 06:12 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] me-fein.livejournal.com
That's right!

only pronouns that are objects end in the letter "m" (whom, him, them)

Date: 2005-05-08 06:16 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] kieri.livejournal.com
As the other two folks kindly posted already, it's 2. :)

"who" is the subject form, "whom" is the object form. Pretty much always, actually, but people make the mistake a lot so it's slowly shifting away from being used outside of non-academic/literary circles.

Another random note, the word "blond" is gender-dependent. A man is blond, a woman is blonde. Silly words appropriated from the French. :)

That said, "who could throw whom off beat" sounds a little awkward to me, possibly because "whom" is so proper and "off beat" is a little more modern. But it's gramatically right anyway. :)

Date: 2005-05-08 03:15 pm (UTC)
avram: (Default)
From: [personal profile] avram
The adjective “offbeat” is slang for “unusual”, and I think it’s recent. But it looks like it’s being used here in the literal sense — the characters are trying to provoke each other into losing the beat of the music.

Anna, “off the beat” might keep readers from hearing the slang term instead of the literal.

Date: 2005-05-09 01:27 am (UTC)
avram: (Default)
From: [personal profile] avram
Don’t forget fiancé and fiancée!

Date: 2005-05-08 06:19 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] cats-haven.livejournal.com
Actually, I think both are correct. MSWord's grammar checker didn't do anything with either statement or suggest changes when i tested it. Of course, we know how stupid MSWord can be heh

Date: 2005-05-08 06:28 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] starsongky.livejournal.com
Not sure why, but #2 sounds more appropriate to me. Something about "who" referring to a subject-type noun and "whom" to an object-type noun, maybe?

That's my best guess, no official advice intended.

Date: 2005-05-08 02:32 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] brightbeak.livejournal.com
that is the way i parsed it :)

Date: 2005-05-08 06:33 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] pecunium.livejournal.com
When in doubt, recast the sentence to use a second person substution (he:she/him:her) that will answer the question, each time, every time.

In this case it would be her/him, and so whom is the right answer.

I recommend using he/him, because the m is the answer.

TK

Date: 2005-05-08 02:31 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] brightbeak.livejournal.com
if you can get your hands on a latin book by *wheelock* and check out reflexive&relative pronouns, the explanation there will give you both the answer and the explanation better than ANY english grammar book ever could

wait, just found an annotated place for wheelock by a dude
http://www.arts.cuhk.edu.hk/Lexis/Wheelock-Latin/lat17.txt
relative pronouns was what i was after, not reflexive! doh!
just remember that latin declines nouns (sorta like conjugating verbs): nom = subject, gen = possessive, and acc = direct object
(dat = indirect object, abl = somehting i cant remember right now, and voc = exclamation)
ièm thinking whom is the correct response according to that...

Date: 2005-05-08 03:09 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] kitchengrrl.livejournal.com
And herein lies the key to the puzzle. When educators in their wisdom started teaching the English language in schools as a subject back in the late 1800s, no one had ever written grammer rules for English. So they appropriated what they had grammer rules for: Latin. o_O

English ain't Latin. You can split infinitives in English anytime you want (to boldly go), but in Latin it CAN'T happen because an infinitive is one word. You can end a sentence with a preposition because to not do so is sometimes awkward, a construction up with which I will not put! :D

As to who/whom, I know I've heard this question answered before and can never remember the whole explanation. The answer boils down to usage, in which case, both are correct. Personally, I think the sentance flows nicely either way.

Date: 2005-05-08 03:48 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] brightbeak.livejournal.com
i learned more english grammar in the 2 full-yr latin courses i took in university than i did in ALL the English courses i took, COMBINED!
and folks wonder why i ended up in the writing lab while doing my masters degree! heh!
latin IS more restrictive in word useages, BUT at the same time, once you have learned the correct way to use the words in the sentence/structure, it is easier to apply to english :)
any child i spawn SHALL be taking latin from an early age! period!

Date: 2005-05-10 02:41 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] brightbeak.livejournal.com
well, even tho latin grammar is different from english grammar, it does really help in the elucidation of various word forms. it just helps take the 'WTF?!" option right out of there :)
bb

Date: 2005-05-08 02:36 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] starfallz.livejournal.com
Well, I learned something today. :D

Date: 2005-05-08 03:19 pm (UTC)
avram: (Default)
From: [personal profile] avram
This looks like something being said or written by a character, which means you also have to take into account which word the character would use.

Date: 2005-05-09 12:46 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] dr-pretentious.livejournal.com
Yes, I think this trumps the question of pronoun case. I haven't read the whole manuscript in any form, but as I recall from the parts I did read, Kendis had a very informal voice, full of colloquialisms and direct addresses to the reader. Despite her fine education, I think "whom" would disrupt the reader's sense of narrative cohesion just a little.

Date: 2005-05-08 04:25 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] cafiorello.livejournal.com
Option B is correct.

The one you are throwing off is the direct object, and therefore must be in the accusative case rather than the nominative case. One way to check this is to substitute other pronouns to see if it sounds right or not: "to see if he could throw him off" sounds right; "to see if he could throw he off" sounds wrong. "Him" and "whom" are both accusative case.

Cathy

Date: 2005-05-08 04:30 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] cafiorello.livejournal.com
Sorry, too much of a grammar geek; I should have read the other comments before replying.

English is an inflected language, like Latin; we do decline our nouns/pronouns, just not very much! Studying Latin is incredibly helpful, but studying any inflected language will help your English. German works!

Cathy

Date: 2005-05-09 07:17 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] caligogreywings.livejournal.com
Both options are correct. Whom, along with the possessive 's, are throwbacks from when we had inflectional morphemes. They are the only ones that survived, and whom is going the way of the dinosaurs. English is a changing language: 449 and the saxon invasion brought the germanic influence; 1066 and the norman invasion brought 10,000 new french and latin words, mostly in religion and government; the Great Vowel Shift changed our vowels to A, E, I, O, U (and sometimes Y, though that is a throwback from the celtic influence); English used to not be SubjectVerbObject; and inflectional morphemes have all but died out.

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